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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
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New Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (11-30)
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast.
QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing.
QUESTION 13
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the.
QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs.
QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
Explanation:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing.
QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true? 200-105 dumps
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct.
The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V.
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a.
QUESTION 19
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Load Sharing
You can configure GLBP in such a way that traffic from LAN clients can be shared by multiple routers.
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don\’t need to specify which.
QUESTION 21
Which feature does PPP use to encapsulate multiple protocols?
A. NCP
B. LCP
C. IPCP
D. IPXP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
PPP permits multiple network layer protocols to operate on the same communication link. For every network layer protocol used, a separate Network Control Protocol (NCP) is provided in order to encaps.
QUESTION 22
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w) Port States
QUESTION 23
Which three statements about VTP features are true? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured.
B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.
C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation.
D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.
F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.
G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 24
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) – HDLC is the default encapsulation type on point-to- point, dedicated links, and circuit-switched connections.
QUESTION 25
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Hot Standby Router Protocol Features and Functionality
HSRP Addressing
QUESTION 26
Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Open Shortest Path First http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Open_Shortest_Path_First The configuration of R1 shows andquot;router ospf 1andquot; however, the diagram also shows that both routers.
QUESTION 28
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in.
QUESTION 29
You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and the device displays a route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?
A. OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP.
B. The router is designated as an ABR.
C. The router is designated as totally stubby.
D. OSPFv3 is in use.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
Correct Answer: EF
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